Why Spanish Speaking Countries in America Had Less Negro Segregation

A general rather than concise answer; Spain had royalty of course for whom almost everyone is a subject and a de facto slave, or nearly so. In the Americas Spanish countries tried making slaves of aboriginals yet they didn’t make good slaves, so fundamentally they killed them off as best they could. That was more like attempted genocide rather than segregation.

Sixteen million aboriginals died off, the majority in Spanish speaking countries. Argentina was notably the most efficient at killing off the aboriginal population. Spanish speaking countries had Spaniards and Indians, mixes of those, yet fewer negro slaves to segregate after freedom.

French speaking countries had lots of negro slaves. In Haiti after the slave revolt when most of the white slave owners fled or were killed the black population wrote to those that fled saying they were forgiven and to return. When those former slavers returned they were slaughtered, thus there was no problem with segregation. Spanish colonies were about last to abolish slavery though.

The Catholic influence on moderating slavery in Spanish speaking countries was real. Apparently the Spanish Florida set up escaped slaves from British colonies as free men. In 1583 Pope Paul III condemned slavery. 

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavery_in_Latin_America

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavery_in_the_Spanish_New_World_colonies